yes, I said it would depend on the exact situation. It just seems more likely..
I never made these claims. It was just questions and speculation. I did imply that the older man/girl situation is probably going to be more harmful, but so what? You still treat each case individually - looking at the factors relevant to the particular instance.
I don't see why it is a double standard if the scenario, effects, etc. etc. have significantly changed - and if that still counts as a double standard, then why is a double standard bad (and what exactly does that mean)?
You are speculating that it is more likely that a man does harm than a woman. That is gendered thinking and is a double standard.
Of course the justice system should consider things on a case by case basis (that is the entire point of a common law system), however the justice system can't do that if you begin by assuming men to be more harmful than women. Justice is blind. Blind to gender, blind to race, blind to religion.
Would you argue that it is likely for a black man to do more harm than a white one? What about a christian being more harmful than an atheist?? Because these are exactly the same as what you're doing.
If a 41 year old man had an "appalling history of neglect and abuse, psychological problems and her alcohol dependence after being weaned off pain medication, and otherwise good character made for exceptional circumstances." had a "drinking binge" with a "a 17-year-old boy and then his 14-year-old friend" got "very drunk and had little memory of what happened" and "had sex with a 14-year-old boy". Then you and the media would be baying for blood.