Maths Discussion Thread (3 Viewers)

Sy123 · Oct 30, 2012

If non integer factorials can be defined, is it possible to 'expand'

$(1+x)^{\frac{1}{2}}$

seanieg89 · Oct 30, 2012

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_series

Sy123 · Nov 11, 2012

Why does:

$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{0}{x} =0$

seanieg89 · Nov 11, 2012

Sy123 said:
Why does:

$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{0}{x} =0$

Look up wikipedia for a rigorous definition of what 'lim' means and the question will become trivial. Roughly speaking,

$\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}f(x)=L$

means that f(x) gets arbitrarily close to L when x is large. But here f(x) is in fact EQUAL to 0 everywhere (except at x=0), so certainly converges to 0 for large x.

Sy123 · Nov 11, 2012

seanieg89 said:
Look up wikipedia for a rigorous definition of what 'lim' means and the question will become trivial. Roughly speaking,

$\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}f(x)=L$

means that f(x) gets arbitrarily close to L when x is large. But here f(x) is in fact EQUAL to 0 everywhere (except at x=0), so certainly converges to 0 for large x.

Ah of course, very silly oversight of mine

Maths Discussion Thread (3 Viewers)

Sy123

This too shall pass

seanieg89

Well-Known Member

Sy123

This too shall pass

seanieg89

Well-Known Member

Sy123

This too shall pass

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