Drsoccerball
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Re: MX2 2015 Integration Marathon
.But why is the area under sin(x) between 0 and pi/2 the same as that between pi/2 and pi?
This transformation is exactly how you would prove this rigorously (*).
(*) At least as rigorously as possible in high school. A more subtle point here is that area is not really rigorously defined in high school. Before getting to more advanced notions of volume in measure theory, we typically define the area only for certain regions. (Such as those bounded by the x axis, two vertical lines, and the graph of a positive continuous function f(x). For such regions we would literally DEFINE area as being the definite integral of this function between the two vertical lines.)