As I understand, in the world of maths y = logx denotes the natural logarithm by default. in every other discipline (i.e. engineering) logx means base 10I honestly didn't know until you, leehuan and Carrotsticks corrected me that you could have a log with base e, without the subscript being written. (Having doing 15 years of maths).
Always thought that a log without a base 'e' was to the base 10.
As I understand, in the world of maths y = logx denotes the natural logarithm by default. in every other discipline (i.e. engineering) logx means base 10
Taking the inverse does directly get you the related angle pi/8 though, and then he used that angle to find the solutions in the appropriate quadrants... Isn't that how you would normally do it?How in the world does taking the inverse directly yield that answer?
One way of obtaining that solution is to consider the double angle formula with tan pi/4
Use the quadratic formula and only take the positive solution
How in the world does taking the inverse directly yield that answer?
One way of obtaining that solution is to consider the double angle formula with tan pi/4
Use the quadratic formula and only take the positive solution
The question was from a textbook and I think HSC and Prelim courses have an assumption where all calculators are allowed .There is no way you could look at that first up and determine the exact value (unless you have memorised that )Sorry my question is, how would you know that taking the inverse tan of give you an exact value of pi/8 (i.e the principle value) without using a calculator? seeing that this isn't one of the common trig identities you've would learn.
and the formal proof behind that identity is based on my solution, no I'm saying that using a calculator (the ones approved by the board of studies) to take the inverse tan would just give some numbers rounded to like 5 decimal places rather than the exact value of pi/8, so it wouldn't really work.The question was from a textbook and I think HSC and Prelim courses have an assumption where all calculators are allowed .There is no way you could look at that first up and determine the exact value (unless you have memorised that )
You can convert the long decimal into an exact radian value by dividing pi by the answer.and the formal proof behind that identity is based on my solution, no I'm saying that using a calculator (the ones approved by the board of studies) to take the inverse tan would just give some numbers rounded to like 5 decimal places rather than the exact value of pi/8, so it wouldn't really work.
Can someone show how to get the solution for the second part of part B (finding M) and part c . Thankyou
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Can someone show how to get the solution for the second part of part B (finding M) and part c . Thankyou
View attachment 32945
Can someone show the working out to this question , thanks
Solve the equation |x-2| -|x+3| = x^2 -1