Yeah, cot(x+y) = 1/tan(x+y) = [1 - tan(x)tan(y)]/[tan(x) + tan(y)]. Now convert things to cot.so just switch the tan one around?
Yeah, cot(x+y) = 1/tan(x+y) = [1 - tan(x)tan(y)]/[tan(x) + tan(y)]. Now convert things to cot.so just switch the tan one around?
Why is it that you switch the numerator and denominator around?Yeah, cot(x+y) = 1/tan(x+y) = [1 - tan(x)tan(y)]/[tan(x) + tan(y)]. Now convert things to cot.
Why is it that you switch the numerator and denominator around?
What I did was 1/(tan(x)+tan(y))/(1-tan(x)tan(y))
oh yes ofc..lol..what a brain fartThis is because switching them around is the same thing. For fractions, 1/(a/b) = b/a.
We have things like tan(x) and tan(y) now, but want the answer in terms of cot(x) and cot(y) instead. So we replace each tan with a 1/cot, and simplify the whole thing.oh yes ofc..lol..what a brain fart
After than what do you mean by convert things to cot?
ah ok thanks man ur a legendWe have things like tan(x) and tan(y) now, but want the answer in terms of cot(x) and cot(y) instead. So we replace each tan with a 1/cot, and simplify the whole thing.
Brackets. BRACKETSProve:
(tan(2θ)-tan(θ))/tan(2θ)+cot(θ)=tan^2(θ)
I keep getting tan(θ) by simplifying LHS and not tan^2(θ)
How did you get (tan^2(θ)(1+tan^2(θ))/(1+tan^2(θ)) at the end?
The fourth one is only to avoid losing cheap marks from the markers (in other words, "because the HSC says so"). The first three are the ones needed for a mathematically valid induction proof of that kind.In maths induction there are 4 steps
1. Show true for n=1 (or whenever it starts)
2. Assume true for n=k
3. Show true for n=k+1. ALWAYS involve assumption
4. Conclusion
WHy do we need these 4 steps?
Use the (acute) angle between two lines formula. Have you learnt this yet? It is:HELP ME PLZ
Find the acute angle between 2x+y-3=0 and x+1=0
yeah but there's no y for the second equation. That confuses meUse the (acute) angle between two lines formula. Have you learnt this yet? It is:
provided that m1m2 is not equal to -1. (m1 and m2 refer to the slopes of the two lines. Obviously if m1m2 were equal to -1, the lines would be perpendicular, and the angle between them would be 90 deg.)
yeah but there's no y for the second equation. That confuses me
simplify:
(sin(θ)+sin(θ/2))/(1+cos(θ)+cos(θ/2))