Also if x approached Pi/2 wouldn't there be a vertical asymptote at x=Pi/2
It turns out no. The limit is actually 0. An easy way to show this is with the help of
L'Hôpital's rule (which isn't in the syllabus though).
Here's the graph of the function:
http://wolframalpha.com/input/?i=plot+y+=+(sin+x+-1)(tan+x++2)&x=0&y=0 .
Since it approaches 0, we could extend the function to a continuous one defined on the reals by defining it to be 0 at these places where tan(x) blows up. If we did this, the answer to the question would have been three instead (if the Q. was rephrased as solving f
*(x) = 0 in the same interval 0 to 2pi, where f
* is the described continuous extension of (sin(x) – 1)(tan(x) + 2)).