I hadn't heard of King's Property but a quick Google says that it is
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \int_a^b f(x) \mathrm{d} x = \int_a^b f(a+b-x) \mathrm{d}x)
You prove this using integration by substitution. The version that you use for all of these questions is:
For the first one, let I equal to the value of the definite integral. By King's Property, you can say that
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \int_{-1}^1 \frac{x^2}{1+e^x} \mathrm{d} x = \int_{-1}^1 \frac{x^2}{1+e^{-x}} \mathrm{d} x = \int_{-1}^1 \frac{x^2 e^x}{1+e^{x}} \mathrm{d} x. )
You can then add two of I together to get:
For the second one, you apply King's property to show that
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \int_{-\pi/4}^{\pi/4} \frac{1}{1+\sin(x)} \mathrm{d}x = \int_{-\pi/4}^{\pi/4} \frac{1}{1+\sin(-x)} \mathrm{d}x = \int_{-\pi/4}^{\pi/4} \frac{1}{1-\sin(x)} \mathrm{d}x.)
If J is the value of the definite integral, then you can say that
For the last one, it's very similar so I'll skip some steps. If K is the value of the definite integral, then