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Answers to General Paper (2 Viewers)

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Q 28 c) ii)

shouldnt the answer to this questiuon be (170, 70)?

i did it by using the midpoint formula (thankyou yr 10) where MP = (x1 + x2)/2 , (y1 + y2)/2

how could it be (170, 55)? isnt that below point A?

i dont understand.
 

timrie6

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Albert K. Holic said:
shouldnt the answer to this questiuon be (170, 70)?

i did it by using the midpoint formula (thankyou yr 10) where MP = (x1 + x2)/2 , (y1 + y2)/2

how could it be (170, 55)? isnt that below point A?

i dont understand.
yeah i second that
i got 170, 60 though
 

cro_angel

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Albert K. Holic said:
shouldnt the answer to this questiuon be (170, 70)?

i did it by using the midpoint formula (thankyou yr 10) where MP = (x1 + x2)/2 , (y1 + y2)/2

how could it be (170, 55)? isnt that below point A?

i dont understand.
its 170, 58 because you need to find the average of the three middle section points (like it was done in the first 1/3 of the graph where A isnt the middle point)
u should have been following how to find the median regression line which we learned in year 12 rather than that :p
 

PC

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The midpoint formula basically finds the average of two numbers, but here we need the median, which is not necessary the mean. List the x co-ordinates in order and take the middle one, then list the y co-ordinates in order and take the middle one.
 

cro_angel

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haha so like the people who found the mean and got 58 and people who used that way got it right either way.. woo
wait.. does that mean u wont get a mark for working it out wrong
 

timrie6

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Albert K. Holic said:
Sorry, should've read thru all the posts before shooting my mouth off. bad luck timrie, looks like we were wrong.
damn. oh well! its over now, no more mathttsssss
now, i think everyone should rep PC
 

kylie_robbo

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PC said:
Q2: The vertical axis is going up by 5 at a time, while the horizontal axis is only going up by one at a time. So if you just look at the "squares" you think the slope is 1, but it's really 5.

It's a really nasty question. It looks really easy but you had to read the question carefully.

Q22: A$1 = €0.62
So A$25 = 25 x 0.62 = €15.50

Then V$1 = €1.44
So €15.50 = 15.50 ÷ 1.44 = V$10.76

So A$25 = V$10.76 (less transaction fees of course)

Shouldn't that be 15.50 Euro = 15.50 x 1.44 = Vistabella $ ?
Because the V$ is worth more than the Euro rather than less...

If it wasn't meant to be times rather than divide, can someone please explain further?
 

Stilla

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Well i would have no idea so take what i said with a grain of salt, but it was a damn easy paper, i managed a 98 and i didn't study for a minute so i think a band 6 might be 95+
 

timrie6

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but doesnt band 6 usually begin around 85-88 anyway?
argh ive got my hopes up now
 

Stilla

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KylieR, you're right about it being worth more which is why it's divided.
 

Stilla

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It all depends on scaling, band 6 is not a raw mark, it's a percentile of people. So if a shitload of people get 90 then there's no chance it will be a band 6.
 

Nara

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Omg well lets just say i failed that exam and i even studied for it. im so bad at maths im just glad its over!!
 

timrie6

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I put my result (91) on SAM and it said it was in the top 2.8% of the state
 

Stilla

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How the hell would SAM know abot this years exam, which was MUCH easier than last years papers.
 

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