MoonlightSonata said:
This is a huge straw person fallacy - I never said that. All I said was that we should assume:
1. We ought to do the right thing
2. Treating people equally unless there is a reason not to is the right thing
Sorry, the path I saw you going down was one where you'd assume controversial premises such that the only logical conclusion would be that gay marriages were right. Apologies.
The first premise I'm not going debate in this thread. If you don't agree with the second I'd be a bit worried. But the point is from those 2 premises the jump to accepting gay marriage is indeed a jump.
Well, since one can always come up with a reason not to treat people equally, no matter how weak, I'll agree with both 1 and 2
.
Now we're getting somewhere - a counter-example! If only everyone else would do this. Anyway, as imaginative as it is, it doesn't seem to work. I agree that there is no discrimination. There is a lack of equality, but this lack of equality cannot be fixed by a simple decision from the government that would not harm anyone.
Well, the government could order that each person pay a percentage of their income, or give the house away free, or something, but I agree these aren't really satisfactory solutions. I'll try to think up something else (although I really should be doing something about my trials
).
If there is no discrimination here, then wouldn't you agree that the gay marriage issue is not discrimination? (if you've already done this, i apologise) Surely if something is discriminatory, it is discriminatory independantly of whether or not the government can do anything about it?
The point is, the government is deliberately depriving the rights of certain individuals when there is no moral or rational reason to.
Well, there are several weak rational (and perhaps moral depending on what moral concept) such as religion, devaluing marriage, tradition, general arguements against homosexuality (and thus the embrace of it) (such as these here:
http://setis.library.usyd.edu.au/stanford/entries/homosexuality/), as well as government policies reflecting the views of the citizens in a democracy (of course, might doesn't make right) and so on, mostly listed in the thread so far. (By weak I mean not logically conclusive)
However, I contend that the reasons for granting the right to 'gay marriages' are just as logically inconclusive. The major argument, as I understand it, is the belief that gays are being deprived of their right to marriage, something which I am disagreeing with (on a somewhat technical level, I must admit - if a civil union between gays was permitted, I do not think I would object). However, even if they are deprived of their right to marriage, it doesn't follow that they should be granted this right, provided there is a reason not to do it, as you note.
There may be no discrimination but there is inequality because heterosexuals cannot marry their own kind, when homosexuals can. Everybody's rights are, on face value, written equally.
I disagree. It's perfectly consistant for me to say, marry a good friend of mine for economic reasons, even if we both were heterosexual. Heterosexuality and homosexuality relate to sexual preference, and while people who are married generally have sex (some men would dispute this
), it doesn't mean that you can't have a marriage without sex.
I am the leader of an angry conservative government of brown eyed people.
Oh come on now, there's no need to portray conservative governments as angry and brown eyed, interested in the irradication of our blue eyed brothers
. Besides, this would be going against the fundamental basis of liberalism (personal liberty and tolerance), which in theory conservatives tend to support (personal liberty especially) - although conservative parties have drifted away from these roots, certainly.
I pass a law which says that everyone has a right to kill a blue-eyed person. Sure blue-eyed persons would have the same right, but can you really say that there is equality? Blue-eyed people wouldn't have the right to kill brown-eyed people, green-eyed people, etc.
Well, for the murderer, every Australian would be allowed to kill ol' Bluey - no exceptions, thus I contest there is no inequality. For the murdered, there would be an inequality, as brown-eyes, green-eyes etc. would never be able to have the displeasure (or perhaps pleasure) of being a legal murder victim.
Basically, I feel that any policy which specifies a race, colour, ethnicity (anything which one cannot reasonably choose to change) etc. for 'special treatment' (be it good or bad) is discriminatory. For example, passing a law to search all Arabs boarding a plane would be discriminatory. Passing a law to search all persons with a terrorist record when boarding planes would also be discriminatory. Providing incentives for employers to hire Aboriginals would also be discriminatory.
Any policy which only affects certain people say, gays, but which would affect everyone should they choose to, say, want a male-male marriage, cannot be labelled discriminatory.
For example, the government cuts tax on all profits made on the share market by 50%. This tax cut will only affect people who invest in the share market (ignore run on effects for now). However, should a citizen choose to invest in the share market, then they would benefit from the tax cut - so I contest that such a tax cut would not be discriminatory.