undalay said:
i challenge conics2008 to do this question.
$5 i can give a better proof.
OK..
Equation of Tangent = xx1/a^2 - yy1/b^2 = 1
xsec(x)/a - ytan(x)/b =1
at y=0 x = a/sec(x) >> X ( a/sec(x),0)
at x=0 y= -b/tan(x) >> Y( 0,-b/tan(x))
USING SIMILAR TRIANGLES PMX AND PNX
px/py = pm/pn = btan(x)/btan(x)+b/tan(x)
= btan^2 (x)/btan^2 (x) +b
= tan^2 (x)/ sec^2 (x)
= sin^2 (x)
there you go thats the first part...
if p is an extremity of a latus rectume ( wow sounds sexual ) it must pass through (ae,0) right ?:worried:
then asec(x) = ae >>> sec(x) = e
now from px/py = sin^2 (x)
= 1-cos^2 (x)
= 1 - 1/e^2 >>> e^2-1/e^2
Good day kids now give me my 5 bucks lol....
EDIT: Sorry I'm abit late but I've done this question already, this is the shortest method I know.. =)