Illich (1987) – At common law, larceny is committed by a person who, without the consent of the owner, fraudulently & without claim of right made in good faith takes & carries away anything capable of being stolen with intent, at the time of such taking, permanently depriving the owner thereof.
Operation of temporal coincidence – MR at the time of the taking etc. Generally, a strict approach to this principle has been taken (Potisk (1973)) Taking requires a physical transfer of possession (as opposed to ownership). Requires a physical transfer of possession to = larceny.
Appropriating – accused has possession with consent for a particular purpose but ‘appropriates’ or ‘converts’ the property for his/her own use – Fraudulent appropriation (s124) rather than larceny. If property has passed to the accused, the accused cannot subsequently covert or appropriate what they own (Illich).
that's a summary of my notes on it which should explain it a bit
i'm not sure why the seminar guide n the case woudl say 2 different things.. myabe one was in reference to larceny and one in reference to appropriation? since u can't appropriate something you own?