Very classic question xD....QuLiT said:consider the area under y=1/x between x=n and x= n+ 1
show than 1/n+1< integral between n+1 and n of 1/x < 1/n
is that even a proof?3.14159potato26 said:Very classic question xD....
Proof:
I{n->n+1} 1/x represents the actual area.
By considering the graph of f(x) = 1/x,
f(n) > f(n+1)
Area of retangle with length f(n) > Area of retangle with length f(n+1), both having length of 1 unit.
Therefore, 1/n * 1 > 1/(n+1) * 1
1/n > 1/(n+1).
From the graph, 1/n * 1 > I{n->n+1} 1/x and I{n->n+1} 1/x > 1/(n+1) * 1.
Therefore,
1/(n+1) < I{n->n+1} 1/x < 1/n.
New question:
If f(x) = x * cot(x) show that f(2x) = (1-(tan(x))^2) * f(x).
f(x)= [4/(x-1)] - 2 ; x<1.Azreil said:New question:
f(x) is defined as f(x)= [4/(x-1)] - 2 ; x<1.
Find f^-1(x).
i got the positive version of this answer =S.3.14159potato26 said:I{1->0} 2^(log_e(x))
Notation: log_a(...) means log base a of .... .
Note: Writing it on paper makes things a lot less confusing.
Consider log_e(x).
log_e(x) = log_2(x) / log_2(e) --(change base)
log_e(x) = (1/log_2(e)) * log_2(x)
log_e(x) = log_2(x^(1/log_2(e)))
Therefore,
I{1->0} 2^(log_e(x))
= I{1->0} 2^(log_2(x^(1/log_2(e))))
= I{1->0} x^(1/log_2(e)) ---(Note:Refer to comments after solution)
= [(x^(1+1/log_2(e))/(1+1/log_2(e))] {1->0}
= 0 - 1/(1+1/log_2(e))
= -1/(1+log_e(2)/log_e(e)) --(change base)
= -1/(1+log_e(2)).
3.14159potato26 said:f(x)= [4/(x-1)] - 2 ; x<1.
Let f(f^-1(x)) = x
x = [4/(f^-1(x)-1)] - 2
x + 2 = 4/(f^-1(x)-1)
f^-1(x) - 1 = 4/(2+x)
f^-1(x) = 1 + 4/(2+x)
f^-1(x) = (6+x)/(2+x)
New question:
Given that 1/n! > 1/e^n; n > 5, prove that 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + .... < 103/60 + 1/((e^5)*(e-1)).[/quote]
wtfff is your question asking ??
yes thats a 4unit quesiton. not fair..u-borat said:is that even a proof?
For 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + .... is there an end? 1/n+1 possibly?Heres another question if anyones interested:3.14159potato26 said:New question:
Given that 1/n! > 1/e^n; n > 5, prove that 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + .... < 103/60 + 1/((e^5)*(e-1)).
Nope, there is no end. The whole point of the ... means it goes on to infinity. However, since it is a convergent infinite series, it has a finite value, which you don't need to calcuate, but just prove that LHS < RHS, using the given formula.Tincho said:For 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + .... is there an end?
Its asking you to prove that 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + .... < 103/60 + 1/((e^5)*(e-1)) using the given formula 1/n! > 1/e^n; n > 5. Easier to prove LHS < RHS rather than RHS > LHS.tabbaa said:New question:
Given that 1/n! > 1/e^n; n > 5, prove that 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + .... < 103/60 + 1/((e^5)*(e-1)).
wtfff is your question asking ??
I think you mean n! > en; n > 5, or 1/n! < 1/e^n; n > 53.14159potato26 said:New question:
Given that 1/n! > 1/e^n; n > 5, prove that 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + .... < 103/60 + 1/((e^5)*(e-1)).
Yep you were spot-on.duy.le said:ive posted up my solution though i must say that maths isnt going to be important to most people until monday 12-ish, then we'll see people flooding these forum pages.
my question, rather easy.
Show that (x-1)(x-2) is a factor of
P(x)=x^n(2^m-1)+x^m(1-2^n)+(2^n-2^m)