anonymoushehe
Active Member
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the q asks to draw y = 1/f(x), i got everything in the graph except I did an open circle for the point of inflection at x =2, because in the original graph if x --> 2 for the first graph then y --> -infinity, so 1/y --> 0, and for the second graph x --> 2, y --> +infinity, so1/y --> 0; so i did an open circle. am i being stupid or smth
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the q asks to draw y = 1/f(x), i got everything in the graph except I did an open circle for the point of inflection at x =2, because in the original graph if x --> 2 for the first graph then y --> -infinity, so 1/y --> 0, and for the second graph x --> 2, y --> +infinity, so1/y --> 0; so i did an open circle. am i being stupid or smth