Hey peeps,
i'm currently learning about exchange rates. but in the tim riley book, i've come across this concept:
"under a fixed change rate, the balance of payment impacts the domestic money supply, whereas, under a flexible exchange rate, balance of payment does NOT impact on the domestic money supply"....... can someone provide an example for me? or explain what the hell this is about? its so frustrating...and my teacher said she'll tell me of it later..but my exams are coming up! humph!
and something else too...is there a difference between a fixed and a pegged exchange rate? my teacher said no. Then why is there flexible, fixed AND pegged exchange rate individually mentioned in my textbook...?!#R#$&%*( i'm going insane....
i'm currently learning about exchange rates. but in the tim riley book, i've come across this concept:
"under a fixed change rate, the balance of payment impacts the domestic money supply, whereas, under a flexible exchange rate, balance of payment does NOT impact on the domestic money supply"....... can someone provide an example for me? or explain what the hell this is about? its so frustrating...and my teacher said she'll tell me of it later..but my exams are coming up! humph!
and something else too...is there a difference between a fixed and a pegged exchange rate? my teacher said no. Then why is there flexible, fixed AND pegged exchange rate individually mentioned in my textbook...?!#R#$&%*( i'm going insane....