no they would defs be in 97+ range. 85 went to 95 last year and people said that was 'easier'Do the HSC markers base your marks off of your
Considering the test was pretty hard, it will most likely be scaled to a solid 90 to 95+
no they would defs be in 97+ range. 85 went to 95 last year and people said that was 'easier'Do the HSC markers base your marks off of your
Considering the test was pretty hard, it will most likely be scaled to a solid 90 to 95+
no they would defs be in 97+ range. 85 went to 95 last year and people said that was 'easier'
Also thanks for the correction!no they would defs be in 97+ range. 85 went to 95 last year and people said that was 'easier'
ye i think a 77 went to 93 if I'm not mistaken.Damn, so that would that mean 75 to 80, would be scaled to 90 to 95?
damn a 65 went to 88 last year, does that mean E4 cutoff for this year could be around there?ye i think a 77 went to 93 if I'm not mistaken.
check thisMathematics Extension 2 – HSC Raw Marks Database
rawmarks.info
maybe dont get your hopes up too high just yet tho. I feel like every year all the year 12s online complain about how much harder the exams were.damn a 65 went to 88 last year, does that mean E4 cutoff for this year could be around there?
Wasn't that the usual video they get some poor hs student to go through (this year it was Prairiewood HS I think). Jeez... that's embarassing for that person.BOS has defeated SMH.
The errors spoken about previously here on BOS have embarrassed them enough to remove the video.
If you click on the link now you get
View attachment 36703
clearly by looking at which question has the most algebra bashing lmaoliterally 1984. they need to be held accountable for their actions for not being able to do such a routine and easy question ugh. (sarcasm if anyone didn't pick it up)
also how do they decide whats the hardest question?
idk why smh articles make me cringe a little inside. especially when they get quotes from people but paraphrase it wrongly 'questions about projections that asked students to analyse the components of a motion of a particle could be read as “ambiguous.” ' I don't get what this is saying. There were no projections, only projectile motion. ik journalists arent mathematicians but including technical words for the sake of it doesn't do anything for the article or the readers.There is a new article on it at https://www.smh.com.au/national/nsw...-hsc-maths-questions-yet-20221021-p5brpl.html but they didn’t acknowledge their old video had to be replaced.
Seems like they are just trying to save face.
last years algebra bashing was way worse. this year you literally just had to integrate twice and you're done. not denying the difficulty but the mathematical component wasn't very demandingclearly by looking at which question has the most algebra bashing lmao
compared to the rest of q16 parts this yr, it had a bit more algebra.last years algebra bashing was way worse. this year you literally just had to integrate twice and you're done. not denying the difficulty but the mathematical component wasn't very demanding
This is what I thought in the exam (to my demise as I made some algebraic errors), but I think the change in sign of the velocity accounts for this change in direction. You end up with the same answer nonetheless (if you don't screw up like I did).The James Ruse answer to Q 16 b I think is incorrect. The solution did not take into account that there are two equations of motion. One for the journey upwards where a = - g - 0.1v and for the journey downwards a = g - 0.1v.
I'm still confused by this solution lmao does anyone know how she's allowed to just use the upwards equation the whole way through and sub in x=0, seems to contradict everything I've learnt in mechanics
Thats why i said that question felt illegal in one of my posts but this post below is the reason why.I'm still confused by this solution lmao does anyone know how she's allowed to just use the upwards equation the whole way through and sub in x=0, seems to contradict everything I've learnt in mechanics
16 b and d are questions i feel people would get if they've seen similar versions or were taught those very specific details. can someone please prove I'm not crazy in saying I've seen 16 d somewhere beforeI think the change in sign of the velocity accounts for this change in direction.
Tbh the polynomial thing for 16d wasn't that necessary. Once you have that they're all magnitude 1, you can use z_1+z_2+z_3=1 to draw a rhombus (since their lengths are the same) and deduce one of them has to be 1 and the other two are of the form e^(itheta) and -e(itheta), then you can use the multiplying identity to get theta is pi/2, I think this is probably the most intuitive way cos I got up to that question with two minutes left cos I'd blown it all on the mechanics onecompared to the rest of q16 parts this yr, it had a bit more algebra.
q16d should have been the favourite for the hardest q this yr. required a bit of creativity, while q16b looks like it came out of terry lee lmao.
This is because v is defined as velocity in the solution (with upwards defined as positive) instead of speed (which is what most people do). When you define v as speed then you tend to define the direction of motion as positive. This usually makes adding/subtracting the vectors more intuitive as you can define the signs yourself using the magnitudes given - i.e. you don’t need to think about the sign of v.I'm still confused by this solution lmao does anyone know how she's allowed to just use the upwards equation the whole way through and sub in x=0, seems to contradict everything I've learnt in mechanics
nah you can't make that deduction that 'one of them has to be 1'.Tbh the polynomial thing for 16d wasn't that necessary. Once you have that they're all magnitude 1, you can use z_1+z_2+z_3=1 to draw a rhombus (since their lengths are the same) and deduce one of them has to be 1 and the other two are of the form e^(itheta) and -e(itheta), then you can use the multiplying identity to get theta is pi/2, I think this is probably the most intuitive way cos I got up to that question with two minutes left cos I'd blown it all on the mechanics one
It's impossible to construct unit vectors that add together to get one if one of the is not one. For example, construct the first one anywhere you want, then consider the second vector as one, if it shifts up or down, the distance between its tip and 1 would change and it no longer 1, so the third vector cannot get to one if the second vector is not 1. I think at least, I can't visualise a counter examplenah you can't make that deduction that 'one of them has to be 1'.