they can have heaps of lead on parts specifying any method; memorising one is not recommendedshaon0 said:So i would have to prove it on a HSC paper. Ok thanks.
they can have heaps of lead on parts specifying any method; memorising one is not recommendedshaon0 said:So i would have to prove it on a HSC paper. Ok thanks.
whats this for?tommykins said:the method they gave was integrating t.e^-t or something a rather.
Yea i get what you mean. I thought you were saying that rational rots couldnt be fractions [i didnt actually read the question].undalay said:no im saying for that equation is cant be fractions (show me a monic polynomial with integer coefficients that has fraction roots) .
Obviously fractions are rational.
Any my post wasn't meant to be a proof, rather its suppose to stimulate thoughts/intuition.
proofs are lameee.
Proof of e's irrationality.vds700 said:whats this for?
ah i seetommykins said:Proof of e's irrationality.
I saw a proof that used infintie series by Joseph Fourier. But it was quite short.tommykins said:Proof of e's irrationality.
pi is 180 degrees, but its best to leave it in radians.shaon0 said:I saw a proof that used infintie series by Joseph Fourier. But it was quite short.
Are we allowed to produce a proof like that for 4unit HSC?
Question: In integration if you get a value pi to substitute into cosx or sinx do we change pi into 180 degrees?
but why is it obvious that a monic polynomial can't have a non-integer rational root? The only way I can think of proving that is by my method where you show that q has to be +-1?undalay said:no im saying for that equation is cant be fractions (show me a monic polynomial with integer coefficients that has fraction roots) .
Obviously fractions are rational.
Any my post wasn't meant to be a proof, rather its suppose to stimulate thoughts/intuition.
proofs are lameee.
then, why does sin(pi)=0.0548.... and cos(pi)=0.9985.... instead of sin(pi)=sin(180)=0 and cos(pi)=cos(180)=1?vds700 said:pi is 180 degrees, but its best to leave it in radians.
Its pretty easy, all u need to know is
sin(pi) = 0
cos(pi) = -1
Sorry for my mistake.Iruka said:I doubt you would be asked to use Fourier series to prove the irrationality of pi.
I think the irrationality proof for e that you are talking about used the Taylor series expansion for the exponential function.
When doing calculus, you should always assume that angles are measured in radians.
Changing your calculator to radian mode would give the required answer.shaon0 said:then, why does sin(pi)=0.0548.... and cos(pi)=0.9985.... instead of sin(pi)=sin(180)=0 and cos(pi)=cos(180)=1?
If (x-p/q) is a solution you could deduce that (qx-p) is a factor of the polynomial.AMorris said:but why is it obvious that a monic polynomial can't have a non-integer rational root? The only way I can think of proving that is by my method where you show that q has to be +-1?
thanks for the advice.Templar said:Changing your calculator to radian mode would give the required answer.
If (x-p/q) is a solution you could deduce that (qx-p) is a factor of the polynomial.