I do not understand how this works. Could you please explain?
This makes a lot more sense. Thank you for clarifying.
the answer is 8fun question to do for anyone interested-
Suppose that f(1) = 2, f(4) = 5, f '(1) = 5, f '(4) = 4, and f '' is continuous. Find the value of the following integral.
Wow, you were right about it being ugly.Here you go. I did it in as many steps as possible so you don't miss out on anything:
oh poor carrot, so long lol.... Here is the shorter way:Here you go. I did it in as many steps as possible so you don't miss out on anything:
Haha thank you Math Man. Indeed the method I posted above is very ugly.
I got y' = y/x.Hey guys can you implicitly differentiate this:
<a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=(\frac{y}{x})^{\frac{1}{2}}@plus;(\frac{x}{y})^{\frac{1}{2}}=9" target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?(\frac{y}{x})^{\frac{1}{2}}+(\frac{x}{y})^{\frac{1}{2}}=9" title="(\frac{y}{x})^{\frac{1}{2}}+(\frac{x}{y})^{\frac{1}{2}}=9" /></a>
I did it but I want to confirm with someone. Thanks
Fairly sure you don't need m < 0 considering that when n is even, n - 1 is odd and you can take odd nth roots of negative numbers.Here you go. I did it in as many steps as possible so you don't miss out on anything:
Your assertion would be correct if n were allowed to be negative.
... this better work
